GTPAL: BASICS

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ANSWER TO Stroke (CVA) Quiz

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1. A patient is admitted with uncontrolled atrial fibrillation. The patient’s medication history includes vitamin D supplements and calcium. What type of stroke is this patient at MOST risk for? A. Ischemic thrombosis B. Ischemic embolism C. Hemorrhagic D. Ischemic stenosis The answer is B. If a patient is in uncontrolled a-fib they are at risk for clot formation within the heart chambers. This clot can leave the heart and travel to the brain. Hence, an ischemic embolism type stroke can occur. An ischemic thrombosis type stroke is where a clot forms within the artery wall of the neck or brain. 2. Which patient below is at most risk for a hemorrhagic stroke? A. A 65 year old male patient with carotid stenosis. B. A 89 year old female with atherosclerosis. C. A 88 year old male with uncontrolled hypertension and a history of brain aneurysm repair 2 years ago. D. A 55 year old female with atrial flutter. The answer is C. A hemorrhagic stroke occurs when bleeding in the ...
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Pressure Ulcers / Decubetus Ulcer (Bedsores)

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Pressure ulcers are a common and serious problem in clinical practice, particularly for clients who are bedridden or use a wheelchair. These injuries to the skin and underlying tissue can cause significant pain and discomfort, and can even lead to life-threatening infections, sepsis, abscesses, necrotizing fasciitis, and osteomyelitis. Nurses play a critical role in preventing and managing pressure ulcers, and understanding how to stage these wounds is an essential part of their practice. What are pressure ulcers?  Pressure ulcers are injuries to the skin and underlying tissue caused by prolonged pressure restricting blood flow.  Nursing tip: Always do a full head-to-toe skin assessment upon admission or transfer to your unit, and document appropriately. What causes pressure ulcers? Pressure ulcers (older terms: bed sores, decubitus) are usually caused by prolonged pressure on the skin. Other causes include friction, shear, moisture, and contributing factors include ...
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ANSWER to Abruptio Placentae and Placenta Previa

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1,  The answer is C. All the other options are CORRECT. Option C is FALSE. This is a type of placenta previa called marginal (or low-lying). There is a chance the woman can delivery vaginally, but if the placenta was completely over the cervix or partially covering it a c-section would be required. At the 20 week ultrasound the location of the placenta is detected. The location will be re-evaluated at about 32 weeks. If a placenta is found to be low lying there is a chance the placenta will move upward (away from the cervix) as the uterus grows to accommodate the baby. 2. The answers are: B, E, F, and G. Option A is WRONG because vaginal exams are avoided to prevent causing damage to the placenta presenting at the cervical opening. Option C is WRONG because the patient is A positive and does NOT need RhoGAM, which is for patients who are RH negative. Option D is WRONG because external monitoring should be used NOT internal, which can damage the placenta at the cervical...
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